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When we take a stroll though history is appears the first church of Europe who taught the world how to interpret the bible just might have mislead many, causing teachers and preachers to overlook child molestation and focus on same gender relationships while many priest raped and ruined the lives of many children for possibly the last 2000 years.
History shows the ancient world believed their were more than two genders, yet Europe taught there were two when actually the bible shows the the creation of Genesis 1 is different than the creation of Genesis 2. The writer of Genesis 6 says the a specific group of man created by the Lord was destroyed in the flood. It does not mention same sex gendered people were destroyed. Where in the bible are the laws to stone or punish the child molesters? Lets explore Leviticus to determine if these laws were towards homosexuality ( same sex) or molesters and rapist.
I will address Leviticus 20:13 & 18:22
Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie (Shakab) with mankind (zakar), as with (mishkab ) womankind (ishshah): it is abomination.
Leviticus 18:22
Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
This is the German version
22 Du sollst nicht beim Knaben liegen wie beim Weibe; denn es ist ein Greuel.
Who is Moses talking to and what is the definition of the German words Knaben and Weibe?
Leviticus 20:13 If a man (ish) also lie (shakab-yiskab) with mankind (zakar), as he lieth (mishkab) with a woman (ishshah - issah), both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.
Notice leviticus 18 omits the word man (ish)
Man - Ish - is a male person, also consent to each one a man of high degree.
Mankind - Zachara - a man or animals, male, male child male in lower State.
Lay/lie - shakab - sexual relations (rape)
lieth - Mishkab - carnal intercourse
Womankind - Isha or Ishshah
Mankind - Zachara - a man or animals, male, male child male in lower State.
Lay/lie - shakab - sexual relations (rape)
lieth - Mishkab - carnal intercourse
Womankind - Isha or Ishshah
Woman - Isha or Ishshah
The writer of the 1611 clearly uses the words woman and womankind but not in both text one of these words represents a wife and the other possibly a servant, slave or commoner.
It seems to me that these passages in Leviticus is more about the social status of the sex partners than the gender. Therefore, where did the homosexual elements of these text originate? Did the theologians of old have an agenda? I don't know for sure but does seems they did have an agenda to create their own form of something old.
Leviticus 18:22 who is Moses was addressing? Was he directing this commandment to the army, rulers, elders or everybody in the camp? He is saying violating a person of lesser degree is a sin. Non-consensual sex is a violation and because children cannot consent to sex, sex with them or commoners is off limits ( a violation).
Was this a principle in the land of Kama (Genesis 10)? I ask this question because the woman who accused Joseph of rape was (according to Joseph) initially trying to have sex with him. She was his overlord (superior) wife of an official and if the law of Leviticus 18:22 came out of the principals of Ma'at (of the land of Kama) her forcing herself on Joseph was unethical and a sin. (Genesis 39)
Instead of condemning consensual sex or the law condemns the act of raping children or other classes. Leviticus 20:13. says having sex with a younger person or a subordinate was a sin and if you had sex with a younger person (Zachar) you would be killed and the adult engaged with the sex act with you, this includes not the Zachar(mankind) but the Ish (man) and the Isha (woman).
Leviticus 20:13 If a man, also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. Is this text refering to sexual relations as in group sex with a wife (woman)? The writer states they shall and because the word they is a pronoun, the writer could be referring to the man or all three? The word they should be examined.
If these text originated from Judaism should we examine Judaism to understand the teaching about consensual same sex relationships and if this is their text why have they not addressed this matter? I wonder what the God of Noach taught about grown people engaged in consensual same sex relationships, were the teachings the same as the church of Rome and the protestant churches? I think not! There are a few other text in the Bible that are misinterpreted to condemn homosexuality.
During biblical times the world was aware there were more than two genders and apparently set up a structure to ensure every child would be safe, as well as every slave or worker. What does the first church of Europe who now is accused of atrocities towards children preach about protecting children, employees and servants? It seems SOME of the ancient world were progressive about equality long before Siberia (Europe) and Rome came to power. How much better would the world be if the theologians taught the verses in their true ancient African form instead of the translations of the rulers of New world now well into its 2022 year? .
Was this a principle in the land of Kama (Genesis 10)? I ask this question because the woman who accused Joseph of rape was (according to Joseph) initially trying to have sex with him. She was his overlord (superior) wife of an official and if the law of Leviticus 18:22 came out of the principals of Ma'at (of the land of Kama) her forcing herself on Joseph was unethical and a sin. (Genesis 39)
Instead of condemning consensual sex or the law condemns the act of raping children or other classes. Leviticus 20:13. says having sex with a younger person or a subordinate was a sin and if you had sex with a younger person (Zachar) you would be killed and the adult engaged with the sex act with you, this includes not the Zachar(mankind) but the Ish (man) and the Isha (woman).
Leviticus 20:13 If a man, also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. Is this text refering to sexual relations as in group sex with a wife (woman)? The writer states they shall and because the word they is a pronoun, the writer could be referring to the man or all three? The word they should be examined.
If these text originated from Judaism should we examine Judaism to understand the teaching about consensual same sex relationships and if this is their text why have they not addressed this matter? I wonder what the God of Noach taught about grown people engaged in consensual same sex relationships, were the teachings the same as the church of Rome and the protestant churches? I think not! There are a few other text in the Bible that are misinterpreted to condemn homosexuality.
During biblical times the world was aware there were more than two genders and apparently set up a structure to ensure every child would be safe, as well as every slave or worker. What does the first church of Europe who now is accused of atrocities towards children preach about protecting children, employees and servants? It seems SOME of the ancient world were progressive about equality long before Siberia (Europe) and Rome came to power. How much better would the world be if the theologians taught the verses in their true ancient African form instead of the translations of the rulers of New world now well into its 2022 year? .
